If you are friendly with a mathematician, then perhaps she could help you understand why people here are objecting to what you write. Repeatedly venting your spleen with us does not seem to be helping.
]]>In your answer you said that a sufficient condition for the derivative to be infinity was that the function be nonconstant. You didn't say anything about differentiability at 0. My point is that for a function like x sin(1/x) the value 0 is taken infinitely many times in any neighborhood of 0, so if you are trying to impart some meaning to (f(x) - f(0))/(pi - pi), there will be infinitely many values where the numerator will also be equal to zero, so you will apparently have an indeterminate form 0/0. Perhaps according to some symbolic convention (that you have not enunciated...) this should be regarded as unsigned infinity anyway, but then why did you include the hypothesis that f be nonconstant?
]]>(If you really want to go there: calculus is not done in the one-point compactification of R, so far as I have seen, but rather in R with some appeals to the extended real numbers [-\infty,\infty]. Moreover, it's not clear where you are using the hypothesis that your function is continuous and also why nonconstant is sufficient: what if the function is something like xsin(1/x), which takes on the same value infinitely many times near the limiting point?)
Finally, no, I don't hate you. I don't understand you very well, and sometimes you say things that I wish you wouldn't, but again I am willing to ascribe this to differences of culture and/or language.
]]>