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Is this question acceptable?: Is this question appropriate for MathOverflow?

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    http://mathoverflow.net/questions/40882/in-1d-is-a-w1-p-function-always-lipschitz-for-p-ge1

    The person asking is a graduate student who seems to understand everything correctly but is looking for confirmation.
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    Deane: I hope your curt "no" means that "there is no apparent contradiction, you are just making a silly mistake"...

    That aside, I do think the question is a bit on the basic side for MO.

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    Willie, isn't what the student wrote completely corrrect?
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    Never mind. The student made a mistake. I was careless.
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    The leftmost side he wrote u(x) - u(y). The rightmost side he wrote the integral from y to x of Du multiplied by (x-y). They are rather not equal. See also Nate's answer for a counter-example.

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    Or this: http://mathoverflow.net/questions/40933/conformal-coordinates

    I'm honestly confused by what is or is not a reasonable question for MO.
    • CommentAuthorRyan Budney
    • CommentTimeOct 3rd 2010 edited
     
    The deRham cohomology question certainly isn't appropriate as it can be answered with not much effort at the Google prompt. It's also covered quite well in many textbooks.

    On the other hand I don't know a quick answer to the conformal map question. But I'm not sure what the question is.
    • CommentAuthorWillieWong
    • CommentTimeOct 3rd 2010 edited
     

    Deane's comment pretty much settles the question, I think.

    Neither of those questions are really appropriate for MO, methinks. Maybe we just don't have enough 3000+ members this weekend?

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