Vanilla 1.1.9 is a product of Lussumo. More Information: Documentation, Community Support.
1 to 16 of 16
I'm not too keen on the title of this question but for somewhat ill-defined reasons I don't feel it should be closed just yet. It does not have the ring of crankery, and the text of the question refers to explicit remarks/ideas of Friedman.
Seeing as the question is on the verge of being closed, but with at most two people (at time of writing) giving reasons why, perhaps people who have seen more of the work/arguments on foundations could give their feedback on this thread?
I'm sure my die-hard formalism has already been evident at other times on MO, but I am unable to think of any way having an opinion on the "issue" of whether or not "Anything that can happen will" has anything to do with the day-to-day practice of non-meta-mathematics, or the consistency of set theory, or really anything else. In my opinion, mathematics will never have anything to say about such a statement, and vice versa.
Now, I hadn't heard of Harvey Friedman before today, but I see from google and wikipedia that he is a renowned mathematician, and if this is the work he does, I would now agree that there is at least a prima facie case for this question being a valid use of MO (I certainly regret having made a hasty flag as spam). However, if I had the power to vote to close (which I don't), I would still, at the very least, be strongly inclined to do so. Let me restate/expand on my complaint: I cannot imagine a mathematical answer to this question. There are 4 possible answers of the form it seems that the OP was looking for:
"I and many other logicians make the claim that PP and IP are (true / false), and it is (possible / not possible) to justify this claim rigorously, and here is why ..."
and a 5th possibility, which would be my answer,
"Your question is implicitly assuming PP and IP are meaningful statements, an assumption which I disagree with, and here is why ..."
Recall that
PP = "Anything that can happen will."
IP = "Any two horizons are indiscernible to observers on the basis of their extent."
Now for all 5 possible answers, I can't imagine anything mathematical being in place of the ellipses. Certainly, I think that in a philosophy debate, people arguing all 5 positions could have a field day with this, but I don't think that MO is remotely the place to have such a discussion.
Let me conclude my little rant with the sincere disclaimer that I have no knowledge of set theory or mathematical logic, and if what seems to me to be the inherently philosophical/non-mathematical nature of this question is only an illusion produced by my own ignorance, then I apologize to the OP (and Harvey Friedman too, I suppose).
I really should not be commenting any further for now, as I have a lot of work to do tonight and over the next few days, so I will stop here.
Lianna, I think you might need to edit your post here because the link text isn't working properly (if you're using Markdown format then this is different from html).
Prof. Caicedo, it sounds like you see (and please, please correct me if I am wrong) Friedman as essentially using an extended metaphor to explain his motivation for considering various mathematical statements or axioms. If so, I would like to retract my unwarranted comparison with Badiou - at first read, I was extremely put off by many sections from Lianna's linked pdf, in particular
(p.3):
In particular, there are contexts in which there are orderings but where the very idea of quantitative measurement (as presently construed) is inappropriate or even absurd, and so there will not be or cannot be any associated real number orthodoxy. For example, "x is more beautiful than y". Or "idea x is more interesting than idea y". Or "act x is morally preferable to act y". Or "agent x is morally superior to agent y". Or "outcome x is more just than outcome y". Or "act x is more pleasurable than act y." Or "activity x is preferable to activity y" or "state of affairs x is preferable to sate of affairs y".
(p.10-11):
From some points of view, one can criticize Real Existence of section 1.2 on the grounds that one is asserting the existence of a real object using a formula that involves things that are not real. By the claim after Theorem 1.2.1, we have met this objection to a considerable extent.
There are few things more irritating to me than seeing these words or concepts mixed in with math, and I clearly have strong philosophical disagreements with Friedman, but if thinking about these things is how he develops his mathematical ideas, then I understand why they are included.
Lianna, I see from the link in your second question (which I will point out was not included in your first question) that the formal axiom of plentitude Friedman states is:
PLENTITUDE. Any subset of D, bounded (<=) above by some element of D, and definable by a formula of L (parameters allowed), is the set of values of F at the elements of some open interval (x,y), x,y in D.
Now, I'm sure I will never understand the mental process Friedman uses to get from "Anything that can happen will" to this, but without a doubt the above is a mathematical statement. If you had asked for reasons why one might choose to, or choose not to, take the above as an axiom in a logical system (or whatever the appropriate technical phrase is), I would have no complaints, no opinions, and certainly no knowledge, about the matter. But where I make the distinction between math and philosophy (and where I am imagining I can make a judgment without any background in this area) is asking whether some piece of an extended metaphor is correct or not. Is "Anything that can happen will" a true statement? Regardless of whether one's answer is yes, no, or "that's nonsense", the question isn't mathematical. It's not even a matter of formalist vs. Platonist views of mathematics - regardless of whether there is a fact of the matter as to whether the above mathematical statement Friedman calls Plentitude is true or not, the truth or falsity of the metaphysical claim "Anything that can happen will" is irrelevant to mathematics, and mathematics is irrelevant to it. That is my fundamental complaint here.
Badiou strikes again...
Principle of infinite freedom and great justice...
I just saw this question while browsing old questions. The main objection seems to be that the question is not a mathematical one. It seems to me that this objection is easily met. Simply rephrase the question as follows: Is there some precise mathematical statement, that has the flavor of IP or PP, which proves the consistency of all (or most) set-theoretic axioms that are generally accepted today (e.g., large cardinal axioms)? This is no less mathematical than, say, the search for the "right" theory of motives, or the search for an operator whose eigenvalues are the zeros of the Riemann zeta function. That is, though the search is somewhat vague, because we don't know exactly what the right mathematical concepts and definitions are yet, the ultimate end product will be (if everything works out as hoped) a purely mathematical result.
I've voted to reopen the question.
But is reopening the question before the question has been rephrased to meet the objection putting the cart before the horse?
I will pick out Simon Thomas and Andres Caicedo as two knowledgeable people who seem to have problems with the question as it currently stands; perhaps the question should first be changed, and then reopened.
1 to 16 of 16